Captain Stern
12-30-2003, 03:03 AM
Morgoth dispersed his essence into the earth. This weakened his physical form severely leading to him being stated by Tolikien to be 'weaker' than Sauron in the 3rd age, and unable to destroy Arien because he no longer had the power.
What I want to discuss is why he did this. Did he have a long term goal in mind? What was the gain when, before this act, he could contend with all of the Valar (save when Tulkas joined them)? Did he relinquish all control over the dissipated power when he did this; an act of malice, the result of some madness that took hold of him; an act of final defiance against the Valar who he had given up hope of defeating (yet would still have left him with enough power to contend with the Noldor)?
Tolkien's Middle Earth was Morgoth's 'ring' according to Tolkien, but it didn't allow him to 'come back' like Sauron's ring did for him. I have always used as an argument in discussions of this vein that the dispersion of his power didn't lessen his over-all power, only the strength of his physical form. This, depending on your interpretation, still applies to Tolkien's quote. The Silmarillion doesn't make it clear, but perhaps this dispersion of his power into Middle Earth strengthened his power in other areas, his reasoning being that reserving the majority of hi power in his incarnate form woud be a waste seeing as he didn't like to venture forth into battle himself any more. The Silmarillion tells of 'beasts of Morgoth', lands generally being dangerous e.t.c.
Personally I don't see much gain in his approach, at least not in the short term. On the other hand there's the Dagor Dagorath, the end of the world, when, according to the earlier texts, Morgoth is a very real threat to the Valar once again, and this time Tulkas needs help to battle him, in the form of Fionwe and Turin, suggesting that his power was not squandered after all, but dispersed with a purpose in mind.
Any thoughts?
What I want to discuss is why he did this. Did he have a long term goal in mind? What was the gain when, before this act, he could contend with all of the Valar (save when Tulkas joined them)? Did he relinquish all control over the dissipated power when he did this; an act of malice, the result of some madness that took hold of him; an act of final defiance against the Valar who he had given up hope of defeating (yet would still have left him with enough power to contend with the Noldor)?
Tolkien's Middle Earth was Morgoth's 'ring' according to Tolkien, but it didn't allow him to 'come back' like Sauron's ring did for him. I have always used as an argument in discussions of this vein that the dispersion of his power didn't lessen his over-all power, only the strength of his physical form. This, depending on your interpretation, still applies to Tolkien's quote. The Silmarillion doesn't make it clear, but perhaps this dispersion of his power into Middle Earth strengthened his power in other areas, his reasoning being that reserving the majority of hi power in his incarnate form woud be a waste seeing as he didn't like to venture forth into battle himself any more. The Silmarillion tells of 'beasts of Morgoth', lands generally being dangerous e.t.c.
Personally I don't see much gain in his approach, at least not in the short term. On the other hand there's the Dagor Dagorath, the end of the world, when, according to the earlier texts, Morgoth is a very real threat to the Valar once again, and this time Tulkas needs help to battle him, in the form of Fionwe and Turin, suggesting that his power was not squandered after all, but dispersed with a purpose in mind.
Any thoughts?