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Beor
07-22-2009, 09:18 PM
Hey, all, I have a question that I am sure I could "research" and "find the answer to myself", or perhaps, "has already been discussed even here and I am just wasting precious server space by posting this", but too late.

Why did Christopher Tolkien refuse to take any part in the movies (unless he read the script or something like that, and got pissed off)? Did he want his father's works kept in the books? Did he have a personal vendetta against Peter Jackson? Is he descended from Isildur and knew that Peter Jackson would portray Isildur as a moron?

Just wondering.

Thanks.

God Bless.

Galin
07-24-2009, 11:35 AM
Well, according to BBC News (online) at least, Christopher Tolkien released this statement:

"My own position is that The Lord Of The Rings is peculiarly unsuitable to transformation into visual dramatic form," he said.

"The suggestions that have been made that I 'disapprove' of the films, vent to the extent of thinking ill of those with whom I may differ, are wholly without foundation."

He added that he had never "expressed any such feeling".

This BBC article was published a while ago, as it includes: 'Editing has already begun on The Two Towers, the second film, due to come out in December 2002.'

Beor
07-24-2009, 12:37 PM
Cool.

Galin
07-24-2009, 02:42 PM
Also, let's say if (theoretically now) CJRT or his son Adam wanted to get involved, was Jackson going to give them actual power with respect to the project -- screenplay, treatment of characters and etc? I doubt that.

That would not be a very good situation for the Estate, as they would have no real power with respect to producing what they considered a faithful adaptation.

Beor
07-24-2009, 05:38 PM
Well, I like it that Ol' Chris T. thought it should remain in literary form. Books are way better, and like you said, he probably would have been walked all over anyway.